Was Mary actually sinless??????
Mary had absolutely no inclination to sin, she was free of concupiscence. If we remember from an earlier post, concupiscence is the inclination to sin. We as fallen humans all have it even after being baptized, however, for Mary, God preserved her from all sin. Well, her and Jesus of course. How would it even be possible for Jesus to be born from a sinful human mother. Would that not mean, if that be the case, that the Second Person of the Divine Trinity would have actually been able to sin or even contracted original sin. This just could not be. We explained more of this in the post on the Immaculate Conception. We have to also remember what the Angel Gabriel stated when he saluted Her in Luke 1 “[28] And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.” Well, if you have been fully graced,like the greek translates it, their can be no room for sin. If something is full, that more than implies that nothing is lacking. I heard an excellent analogy and I cannot remember where from, but I care to share it with you because it makes tremendous sense when catechising on Mary’s sinlessness.It is possible that I actually read this analogy somewhere in St Alphonsus Liguori’s book ” Glories of Mary .” This book stays at my bedside and is a treasure in itself, everyone should own a copy of this book. Now, on to the analogy ; would it make any sense at all to build a house, but, before you actually moved in to your new house, that you would hand over the keys to the worst criminal known to the world, the devil himself? If Mary had original sin, which she did not, nor any inclination to sin ever, would that analogy not be fitting? God would never hand the keys to the greatest thief and murderer ever, especially before He, in all actuality, moved into His home for 9 months. Of course He wouldn’t do that.... continued at www.canadiancatechist.com